Chapter 6: The blueprint of life (30 questions)

1. Resource partitioning is a type of evolution where different species evolve with:

    a) differences to occupy the many available niches in the ecosystem.
    b) similar but slightly different resource requirements.
    c) the dominance of one species over other species.
    d) the same characteristics but differing resource requirements.
    e) characteristics that are a direct result of human intervention.

2. The study of evolution has been influenced by research carried out in a number of areas, including:

    a) palaeontology.
    b) biogeography.
    c) comparative anatomy and embryology.
    d) biochemistry.
    e) all of the above.

3. Fossils such as Archaeopteryx, that appear to have the characteristics of two different groups of organisms, are known as:

    a) gap fossils.
    b) marker fossils.
    c) trace fossils.
    d) transition fossils.
    e) comparative fossils.

4. The Mesozoic era represents an important time frame over which significant evolution occurred. Most scientists agree that the Mesozoic era:

    a) (dating from 440 to 410 mya) saw the first comeback in life on Earth after the first mass extinction, and plants once again colonised land.
    b) (dating from 245 to 135 mya) was the age of the dinosaurs, and marked the beginning of land animals and plants.
    c) (dating from 360 to 286 mya) began after the second major extinction of life on Earth, and was marked by the evolution of wings in insects.
    d) (dating from 410 to 360 mya) saw the development of the first seed plants, and the evolution of amphibians.
    e) (dating from 245 to 208 mya) was the age of the dinosaurs, and gymnosperms became the dominant plant life on land.

5. Similar structures in a variety of organisms that are due to a common ancestry, but are used for different purposes are called:

    a) pentadactyl limbs.
    b) homologous structures.
    c) homogenous structures.
    d) transition fossils.
    e) comparable structures.

6. A study of nearly all forms of life shows that they share the same cell membrane structure and consist primarily of organic compounds such as enzymes, which have roles involved in controlling chemical reactions, or other types of organic compounds that provide the genetic code of DNA or RNA for the specific organism. Such a type of study would be known as:

    a) a biochemical study.
    b) ontogeny.
    c) comparative anatomy.
    d) a physiological study.
    e) protein comparison.

7. The distribution of plants and animals on different islands and continents was one of the main pieces of evidence that led Darwin and Wallace to the development of their theory of evolution. This type of study is known as:

    a) a distribution study.
    b) biogeography.
    c) comparative distribution.
    d) histology.
    d) ontogeny.

8. Cytochrome-c is a protein needed to make energy available in virtually all living things, from bacteria and fungi to complex plants and animals. The graph shows the number of changes that would be needed in the human DNA nucleotide sequence to produce each type of cytochrome-c for other organisms.

The area of science that would be involved in this type of investigation would be:

    a) palaeontology.
    b) biogeography.
    c) comparative anatomy.
    d) biochemistry.
    e) cytology.

9. A student found the following summary of a key theory of evolution in a textbook:

‘Within a population of a species, there are some individuals that possess characteristics more suited to their environment than others. These organisms are more likely to survive and pass their characteristics on to their offspring. Gradually, over many generations, new organisms evolve that are better adapted to their environment.’

To which theory does this summary belong?

    a) Divergent evolution of a species
    b) Evolution by natural selection
    c) Biological evolution of a species
    d) Historical evolution
    e) Special creation

10. What is the name given to the following evolutionary mechanism?

‘Mutation and different natural selection pressures acting on a population of a species that is physically separated in some way, resulting in the formation of new species.’

    a) Mutation
    b) Biogeography
    c) Isolation
    d) Radiation
    e) Adaptation

11. The formation of desert in central Australia effectively isolated the organisms in the west from those in the east. This type of isolation is known as:

    a) divergence.
    b) geographical.
    c) convergence.
    d) radiation.
    e) desertification.

12. The idea of evolution through punctuated equilibrium is best defined as:

    a) competition or change in the environment then leading to extinction of some species.
    b) a type of evolution where closely related organisms have very different characteristics.
    c) evolution occurring rapidly, followed by an extended period of stasis.
    d) rapid increases in species as they adapt to the environments they inhabit.
    e) evolution that shows a gradual change from one species to another.

13. The law of independent assortment states that:

    a) there are factors (now called genes) in living cells that control all living characteristics.
    b) numbers and types of offspring can be predicted by performing a large number of crossing experiments
    c) some factors (genes) are dominant; that is, they alone are expressed in the presence of another recessive gene.
    d) when the pairs of factors segregate, they do so independently of other pairs of factors. They are distributed into gametes independently of other                pairs of factors (except those on the same chromosome).
    e) there are two factors or units that control each characteristic of an organism. During reproduction, these two factors segregate, one factor appearing                in every gamete.

14. Corresponding pairs of chromosomes are known as:

    a) heterozygous chromosomes.
    b) homologous chromosomes.
    c) homozygous chromosomes.
    d) monohybrids.
    e) dihybrids.

15. The alleles of the male in the monohybrid cross shown are:


    a) heterozygous.
    b) homologous.
    c) homozygous.
    d) identical.
    e) dissimilar.

16. In the monohybrid cross shown, black coat (B) is dominant over the allele for white coat (b).


    a) The resulting offspring will be 50% heterozygous grey, 25% homozygous white and 25% homozygous black.
    b) The resulting offspring will be 75% black and 25% white if a large number of matings take place.
    c) The resulting offspring will be 75% white and 25% black if a large number of matings take place.
    d) The genotypes of the black individuals produced will all be the same.
    e) None of the above are possible outcomes of crossing these two parents.

17. The diagram is an example of:


    a) random separation.
    b) simple mitosis.
    c) mitosis with crossing over.
    d) meiosis with crossing over.
    e) meiosis with no crossing over.

18. According to the rules of drawing a pedigree chart:

    a) a circle or square is coloured in when a person expresses the trait. The diagram is an example of:
    b) a circle or square is not coloured in when a person expresses the trait.
    c) any shape can be used for males and females.
    d) the parents are always drawn in at the bottom of the chart.
    e) only males who carry the disease have their shape coloured in.

19. Co-dominance occurs when:

    a) genes are being expressed separately but without blending.
    b) a blending effect in the phenotype occurs where the phenotype is a different colour from its parents.
    c) a mixing of dominant traits.
    d) mutation in the offspring is produced from mating.
    e) only male offspring have the dominant trait expressed.

20. Intermediate/incomplete occurs when:

    a) genes are being expressed separately but without blending.
    b) a blending effect in the phenotype where the phenotype is a different colour from its parents.
    c) a mixing of dominant traits.
    d) mutation in the offspring is produced from mating.
    e) only male offspring have the dominant trait expressed.

21. In this representation of a nucleotide:


    a) A is a nitrogenous base and will bond with cytosine, B is a sugar and C is a phosphate.
    b) A is a phosphate, B is a sugar and C is a nitrogenous base.
    c) A is a nitrogenous base, B is a sugar and C is phosphate.
    d) A is a sugar, B is a nitrogenous base and C is phosphate.
    e) A is a polynucleotide, B is a nitrogenous base and C is phosphate.

22. The unique language of DNA is due to the arrangement of bases along the polynucleotide chain. There is a triplet code, consisting of three bases, which codes for a specific amino acid. This triplet code is more commonly referred to as a:

    a) gene.
    b) helix.
    c) nucleotide.
    d) polynucleotide.
    e) codon.

23. A gene may be considered as:

    a) a codon which codes for a specific type of amino acid.
    b) a length of DNA that contains information for the synthesis of a special polypeptide.
    c) the joining of two polypeptides via their bases.
    d) a large DNA double helix with protein attached.
    e) the DNA message that becomes translated into enzymes only.

24. A change in the DNA base sequence of a specific gene is called a:

    a) DNA re-write.
    b) phase shift.
    c) carcinogen.
    d) mutation.
    e) mutagen.

25. The process which involves mixing single-stranded DNA from two different sources to assess the degree of similarity between them as shown in the diagram:


    a) DNA sequencing.
    b) DNA–DNA hybridisation.
    c) genome mapping
    d) DNA re-write.
    e) hybrid mapping.

26. Artificial insemination can be a disadvantage in which of the following situations?

    a) when it is difficult or costly to bring the male and female together.
    b) when a female chooses the sperm from a male whose characteristics seem desirable to her.
    c) when different varieties of crops are produced that are homozygous for many genes.
    d) when two different types or strains of plants or animals are interbred to produce a hybrid strain.
    e) the artificial selection and breeding of fruit to produce varieties with a tough skin.

27. Transgenic technology allows the gene responsible for a single desirable characteristic to be transferred across species. This is of benefit to scientists because:

    a) human materials can be produced in transgenic organisms to help treat disease.
    b) humans can consume the transgenic organisms more easily.
    c) the desired characteristics can be selected from within the species.
    d) it may result in a decrease in genetic diversity, reducing potential problems.
    e) none of the above is beneficial.

28. A reproductive process that produces offspring that are not just similar to their parents but genetically identical to their parents is called:

    a) DNA sequencing.
    b) artificial insemination.
    c) selective breeding.
    d) cloning.
    e) transgenic mapping.

29. The drawing and microscope image represent which stage of meiosis?


    a) telophase II
    b) metaphase II
    c) late prophase I
    d) anaphase II
    e) prophase II

30. Late prophase in meiosis 1, may be summarised best in which of the following?


    a) The nuclear membrane disappears, chromosomes become visible, centrioles and spindle begin to form.
    b) One member of each homologous pair goes to the opposite end of the cell.
    c) The chromosomes condense again, following a brief interphase in which DNA does not replicate.
    d) The chromosomes gather into nuclei and the original cell then divides.
    e) Each of the four cells has a nucleus with a haploid number of chromosomes.

Quiz Score: out of 30